Comptia Network+
| Term/Front | Definition/Back |
|---|---|
| 1 What does BGP stand for? | Border Gateway Protocol |
| 2 What is BGP primarily used for? | Routing traffic between autonomous systems on the internet. |
| 3 What does OSPF stand for? | Open Shortest Path First |
| 4 What does RIP stand for? | Routing Information Protocol |
| 5 What is the maximum hop count for RIP? | 15 hops. |
| 6 What does EIGRP stand for? | Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol |
| 7 What is a hop in networking? | One device a packet passes through on its path. |
| 8 What is a routing table? | A list of routes used to forward network traffic. |
| 9 What is a static route? | A manually configured network route. |
| 10 What is a dynamic route? | A route learned automatically through routing protocols. |
| 11 What is route convergence? | The process of routers agreeing on network paths after a change. |
| 12 What does MTU stand for? | Maximum Transmission Unit |
| 13 What is the default Ethernet MTU size? | 1500 bytes. |
| 14 What is fragmentation? | Breaking packets into smaller pieces for transmission. |
| 15 What is a trunk port? | A switch port that carries traffic for multiple VLANs. |
| 16 What is an access port? | A switch port assigned to a single VLAN. |
| 17 What protocol is commonly used for VLAN trunking? | 802.1Q |
| 18 What does STP stand for in switching? | Spanning Tree Protocol |
| 19 What advantage does RSTP have over STP? | Faster network convergence after topology changes. |
| 20 What does LACP stand for? | Link Aggregation Control Protocol |
| 21 What is LACP used for? | Combining multiple network links into one logical connection. |
| 22 What does EtherChannel do? | Bundles multiple physical links to increase bandwidth and redundancy. |
| 23 What does VTP stand for? | VLAN Trunking Protocol |
| 24 What is VTP used for? | Distributing VLAN information between switches. |
| 25 What does BPDU stand for? | Bridge Protocol Data Unit |
| 26 What are BPDUs used for? | Exchanging Spanning Tree information between switches. |
| 27 What is port mirroring? | Copying network traffic to another port for analysis. |
| 28 What does SPAN stand for in switching? | Switched Port Analyzer |
| 29 What is a native VLAN? | The VLAN that carries untagged traffic on a trunk link. |
| 30 What is VLAN hopping? | An attack that gains access to traffic on other VLANs. |
| 31 What is MAC flooding? | An attack that overwhelms a switch's MAC address table. |
| 32 What is broadcast storming? | Excessive broadcast traffic that disrupts a network. |
| 33 What does HSRP stand for? | Hot Standby Router Protocol |
| 34 What is HSRP used for? | Providing default gateway redundancy. |
| 35 What does VRRP stand for? | Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol |
| 36 What is VRRP used for? | Providing high availability for routers. |
| 37 What is MPLS used for? | Forwarding traffic efficiently across service provider networks. |
| 38 What is the control plane in networking? | The part of a device that makes routing decisions. |
| 39 What is the data plane in networking? | The part of a device that forwards packets. |
| 40 What does VXLAN stand for? | Virtual Extensible LAN |
| 41 What is VXLAN used for? | Extending Layer 2 networks across Layer 3 infrastructure. |
| 42 What does GRE stand for? | Generic Routing Encapsulation |
| 43 What is GRE used for? | Encapsulating one protocol inside another for tunneling. |
| 44 What does QoS classify traffic by? | Priority and application requirements. |
| 45 What is jitter in networking? | Variations in packet delivery times. |
| 46 What is packet shaping? | Controlling traffic flow to optimize performance. |
| 47 What is traffic policing? | Limiting traffic that exceeds configured thresholds. |
| 48 What does DiffServ stand for? | Differentiated Services |
| 49 What is DiffServ used for? | Marking and prioritizing network traffic. |
| 50 What does DSCP stand for? | Differentiated Services Code Point |
| 51 What is PAT used for? | Allowing many devices to share one public IP address using different port numbers. |
| 52 What is dynamic NAT? | Automatically assigning public IP addresses from a pool. |
| 53 What is a private IP address? | An IP address reserved for internal networks. |
| 54 What are the private IPv4 address ranges? | 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16 |
| 55 What does CIDR notation /24 mean? | The first 24 bits are the network portion of the address. |
| 56 How many usable hosts are in a /24 network? | 254 |
| 57 How many usable hosts are in a /25 network? | 126 |
| 58 How many usable hosts are in a /26 network? | 62 |
| 59 How many usable hosts are in a /27 network? | 30 |
| 60 How many usable hosts are in a /28 network? | 14 |
| 61 How many usable hosts are in a /29 network? | 6 |
| 62 What is the subnet mask for a /24 network? | 255.255.255.0 |
| 63 What is the subnet mask for a /25 network? | 255.255.255.128 |
| 64 What is the subnet mask for a /26 network? | 255.255.255.192 |
| 65 What is the subnet mask for a /27 network? | 255.255.255.224 |
| 66 What is the subnet mask for a /28 network? | 255.255.255.240 |
| 67 What is the subnet mask for a /29 network? | 255.255.255.248 |
| 68 When does a device use an APIPA address? | When it cannot contact a DHCP server. |
| 69 What APIPA address range is used by Windows devices? | 169.254.0.0/16 |
| 70 What does SLAAC stand for? | Stateless Address Autoconfiguration |
| 71 What is SLAAC used for? | Automatically assigning IPv6 addresses without DHCP. |
| 72 What is the IPv6 loopback address? | ::1 |
| 73 What is the IPv6 unspecified address? | :: |
| 74 What is the IPv6 default route? | ::/0 |
| 75 What type of IPv6 address starts with FC00 or FD00? | Unique local address |
| 76 What type of IPv6 address starts with 2000? | Global unicast address |
| 77 What does dual stack mean? | Running IPv4 and IPv6 at the same time. |
| 78 What is tunneling in IPv6 migration? | Carrying IPv6 traffic inside IPv4 packets. |
| 79 What is NAT64 used for? | Allowing IPv6 devices to communicate with IPv4 devices. |
| 80 What does FHRP stand for? | First Hop Redundancy Protocol |
| 81 What is the purpose of FHRP? | Providing gateway redundancy for hosts. |
| 82 What is a floating static route? | A backup route used if the primary route fails. |
| 83 What is administrative distance? | A value used to determine the preferred route source. |
| 84 What does DNS record type AAAA do? | Maps a hostname to an IPv6 address. |
| 85 What does a CNAME record do? | Creates an alias for another hostname. |
| 86 What does an MX record do? | Identifies mail servers for a domain. |
| 87 What does a TXT record do? | Stores text information such as verification records. |
| 88 What does an NS record do? | Identifies authoritative name servers for a domain. |
| 89 What does a PTR record do? | Performs reverse DNS lookups from IP addresses to hostnames. |
| 90 What is split DNS? | Using different DNS responses for internal and external users. |
| 91 What is DNS poisoning? | Corrupting DNS data to redirect users to malicious sites. |
| 92 What is DNSSEC? | Security extensions that help verify DNS responses. |
| 93 What does NMS stand for? | Network Management System |
| 94 What is a Network Management System (NMS)? | Software used to monitor and manage networks. |
| 95 What does NetFlow do? | Collects information about network traffic flows. |
| 96 What does sFlow do? | Samples network traffic for analysis. |
| 97 What is baselining in network management? | Recording normal network behavior for comparison. |
| 98 What is a packet capture? | Recording network packets for troubleshooting or analysis. |
| 99 What tool commonly performs packet captures? | Wireshark |
| 100 What is port scanning? | Checking a device for open ports and services. |
| 101 What tool is commonly used for port scanning? | Nmap |
| 102 What is network documentation? | Records of network devices, settings, and configurations. |
| 103 What does ICMP stand for? | Internet Control Message Protocol |
| 104 What is ICMP primarily used for? | Error reporting and network diagnostics. |
| 105 What message does ping use to test connectivity? | ICMP Echo Request and Echo Reply |
| 106 What does TTL stand for? | Time To Live |
| 107 What is the purpose of TTL? | To prevent packets from looping indefinitely. |
| 108 What happens when a packet's TTL reaches zero? | The packet is discarded by the router. |
| 109 What command uses TTL expiration to map routes? | traceroute or tracert |
| 110 What does ARP do? | Resolves IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses. |
| 111 What does NDP stand for in IPv6? | Neighbor Discovery Protocol |
| 112 What does NDP replace in IPv6? | ARP |
| 113 What does CAM stand for in switching? | Content Addressable Memory |
| 114 What is a CAM table used for? | Storing MAC addresses and associated switch ports. |
| 115 What happens when a switch receives an unknown unicast frame? | It floods the frame to all ports except the source port. |
| 116 What is a collision domain? | A network area where packet collisions can occur. |
| 117 What device creates separate collision domains for each port? | A switch |
| 118 What is a broadcast domain? | A group of devices that receive broadcast traffic. |
| 119 What device separates broadcast domains? | A router |
| 120 What is duplex mode? | The method used for sending and receiving data. |
| 121 What does MTTR stand for? | Mean Time To Repair |
| 122 What does MTBF stand for? | Mean Time Between Failures |
| 123 What does MTTF stand for? | Mean Time To Failure |
| 124 What does MTTR measure? | The average time required to restore a failed system. |
| 125 What does MTBF measure? | The average operational time between failures for repairable equipment. |
| 126 What is a service level agreement (SLA)? | A contract defining expected service performance and availability. |
| 127 What does uptime refer to? | The amount of time a system remains operational. |
| 128 What does downtime refer to? | The amount of time a system is unavailable. |
| 129 What is a maintenance window? | A scheduled period for updates and repairs. |
| 130 What is capacity planning? | Predicting future resource requirements. |
| 131 What is bandwidth utilization? | The percentage of available bandwidth currently in use. |
| 132 What is oversubscription in networking? | Providing more potential demand than available capacity. |
| 133 What is a bottleneck? | A point where limited resources reduce performance. |
| 134 What is throughput testing? | Measuring actual network performance under load. |
| 135 What is a baseline measurement? | A record of normal performance for comparison. |
| 136 What is synthetic monitoring? | Simulating transactions to test service availability. |
| 137 What is passive monitoring? | Collecting data from existing traffic without generating new traffic. |
| 138 What is active monitoring? | Generating test traffic to measure network performance. |
| 139 What is a CSU/DSU used for? | Connecting routers to digital carrier circuits. |
| 140 What does demarc stand for? | Demarcation point |
| 141 What is the demarcation point? | The boundary between the service provider's network and the customer's network. |
| 142 What is a smart jack? | A device used by providers to test and monitor digital circuits. |
| 143 What does CPE stand for? | Customer Premises Equipment |
| 144 What is Customer Premises Equipment (CPE)? | Equipment located at the customer's site used to access network services. |
| 145 What does POP stand for in telecommunications? | Point of Presence |
| 146 What is a Point of Presence (POP)? | A location where a provider connects customers to its network. |
| 147 What does ISP stand for? | Internet Service Provider |
| 148 What is an Internet Service Provider (ISP)? | A company that provides internet access services. |
| 149 What does last mile refer to? | The final connection between the provider and the customer location. |
| 150 What is DSL? | Internet service delivered over telephone lines. |
| 151 What does DOCSIS stand for? | Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification |
| 152 What is DOCSIS used for? | Delivering internet service over cable television infrastructure. |
| 153 What is a leased line? | A dedicated connection between two locations. |
| 154 What is metro Ethernet? | Ethernet service provided across a metropolitan area. |
| 155 What is satellite internet? | Internet service delivered through communication satellites. |
| 156 What does FCS stand for? | Frame Check Sequence |
| 157 What is a Frame Check Sequence (FCS)? | A value used to detect errors in network frames. |
| 158 What happens when packets exceed the MTU size? | They may be fragmented or dropped. |
| 159 What is jumbo frame support? | The ability to transmit frames larger than the standard Ethernet size. |
| 160 What is the standard Ethernet frame size? | 1518 bytes |
| 161 What is the standard Ethernet MTU size? | 1500 bytes |
| 162 What is a runt frame? | An Ethernet frame smaller than the minimum valid size. |
| 163 What is a giant frame? | An Ethernet frame larger than the maximum valid size. |
| 164 What is the minimum Ethernet frame size? | 64 bytes |
| 165 What is the maximum Ethernet frame size? | 1518 bytes |
| 166 What is duplex mismatch? | A configuration issue where devices use different duplex settings. |
| 167 What symptom often indicates a duplex mismatch? | Slow performance and excessive errors. |
| 168 What is interface utilization? | The percentage of available bandwidth being used on an interface. |
| 169 What are input errors on an interface? | Errors detected while receiving packets. |
| 170 What are output errors on an interface? | Errors detected while transmitting packets. |
| 171 What is packet discarding? | Dropping packets because of congestion or errors. |
| 172 What is buffer overflow in networking? | A condition where incoming traffic exceeds available memory capacity. |
| 173 What is the first step in the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? | Identify the problem. |
| 174 What is the second step in the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? | Establish a theory of probable cause. |
| 175 What is the third step in the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? | Test the theory to determine the cause. |
| 176 What is the fourth step in the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? | Establish a plan of action and identify potential effects. |
| 177 What is the fifth step in the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? | Implement the solution or escalate as necessary. |
| 178 What is the sixth step in the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? | Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures. |
| 179 What is the seventh step in the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? | Document findings, actions, and outcomes. |
| 180 What does the troubleshooting command ping verify? | Basic network connectivity. |
| 181 What does tracert help identify? | Where network communication failures occur along a path. |
| 182 What does nslookup help troubleshoot? | DNS resolution problems. |
| 183 What command displays the local routing table? | route print |
| 184 What command displays active network connections? | netstat |
| 185 What command displays detailed IP configuration information? | ipconfig /all |
| 186 What command renews a DHCP lease? | ipconfig /renew |
| 187 What command releases a DHCP lease? | ipconfig /release |
| 188 What command clears the DNS resolver cache? | ipconfig /flushdns |
| 189 What command registers the DNS name with a DNS server? | ipconfig /registerdns |
| 190 What command displays the path to a destination host in Linux? | traceroute |
| 191 What command displays network interface configuration in Linux? | ifconfig or ip addr show |
| 192 What does PoP stand for in cloud networking? | Point of Presence |
| 193 What is a Point of Presence (PoP)? | A location where network services are provided to customers. |
| 194 What does CDN stand for? | Content Delivery Network |
| 195 What is a Content Delivery Network (CDN)? | A group of distributed servers that deliver content closer to users. |
| 196 What is edge computing? | Processing data closer to where it is generated or used. |
| 197 What is an overlay network? | A virtual network built on top of another network. |
| 198 What is an underlay network? | The physical network infrastructure supporting an overlay. |
| 199 What is network automation? | Using software to configure and manage network devices automatically. |
| 200 What does API stand for? | Application Programming Interface |
| 201 What is an API used for in networking? | Allowing software to interact with network devices and services. |
| 202 What does REST stand for? | Representational State Transfer |
| 203 What is REST commonly used for? | Communicating with web services and APIs. |
| 204 What does JSON stand for? | JavaScript Object Notation |
| 205 What is JSON used for? | Structuring and exchanging data between systems. |
| 206 What does YAML stand for? | YAML Ain't Markup Language |
| 207 What is YAML commonly used for? | Configuration files and automation tools. |
| 208 What is infrastructure as code (IaC)? | Managing infrastructure using code and configuration files. |
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