Comptia Security+

199 Flashcards

Term/Front	Definition/Back
1 What port does HTTP use?	80
2 What port does HTTPS use?	443
3 What port does SSH use?	22
4 What port does FTP use for data transfer?	20
5 What port does FTP use for commands?	21
6 What does DNS do?	Converts domain names into IP addresses.
7 What does DHCP do?	Automatically assigns IP addresses to devices.
8 What device connects different networks together?	Router
9 What device connects computers within the same network?	Switch
10 What command displays IP settings in Windows?	ipconfig
11 What command tests if another device is reachable on the network?	ping
12 What does VPN stand for?	Virtual Private Network
13 What is malware?	Software designed to harm or exploit systems.
14 What is phishing?	An attempt to trick users into giving sensitive information.
15 What does BIOS stand for?	Basic Input/Output System
16 What does SSD stand for?	Solid State Drive
17 What is a firewall used for?	Filtering network traffic based on security rules.
18 What is the principle of least privilege?	Giving users only the access they need to do their jobs.
19 What port does IMAP use for email access?	143
20 What port does secure IMAP use?	993
21 What port does secure POP3 use?	995
22 What does CPU stand for?	Central Processing Unit
23 What does RAM stand for?	Random Access Memory
24 What does GUI stand for?	Graphical User Interface
25 What does OS stand for?	Operating System
26 What type of malware locks files and demands payment?	Ransomware
27 What is encryption?	The process of converting data into a secret code.
28 What is decryption?	The process of converting coded data back into readable form.
29 What is an IP address?	A unique address used to identify a device on a network.
30 What command shows the path packets take to a destination in Windows?	tracert
31 What command releases a DHCP address in Windows?	ipconfig /release
32 What command requests a new DHCP address in Windows?	ipconfig /renew
33 What is social engineering?	Manipulating people to reveal confidential information.
34 What is antivirus software used for?	Detecting and removing malicious software.
35 What does WLAN stand for?	Wireless Local Area Network
36 What does MAC stand for in networking?	Media Access Control
37 What is a MAC address?	A unique hardware address assigned to a network device.
38 What does ISP stand for?	Internet Service Provider
39 What does URL stand for?	Uniform Resource Locator
40 What does USB stand for?	Universal Serial Bus
41 What does GPU stand for?	Graphics Processing Unit
42 What does PSU stand for?	Power Supply Unit
43 What file system is commonly used by Windows?	NTFS
44 What file system is commonly used by USB drives for compatibility?	FAT32
45 What command displays active network connections in Windows?	netstat
46 What command displays the local routing table in Windows?	route print
47 What command checks disk errors in Windows?	chkdsk
48 What command scans and repairs Windows system files?	sfc /scannow
49 What type of malware secretly records keystrokes?	Keylogger
50 What is a brute force attack?	An attack that tries many password combinations until one works.
51 What is patch management?	The process of updating software to fix bugs and security issues.
52 What is a backup?	A copy of data used for recovery if the original is lost.
53 What does UDP stand for?	User Datagram Protocol
54 Which protocol is faster but less reliable, TCP or UDP?	UDP
55 Which protocol guarantees delivery of data, TCP or UDP?	TCP
56 What port does DNS use?	53
57 What port does DHCP use for clients?	68
58 What port does DHCP use for servers?	67
59 What port does RDP use?	3389
60 What port does LDAP use?	389
61 What port does SNMP use?	161
62 What does VLAN stand for?	Virtual Local Area Network
63 What is subnetting?	Dividing a network into smaller networks.
64 What is a default gateway?	The device that sends traffic to other networks.
65 What command displays DNS information in Windows?	nslookup
66 What command flushes the DNS cache in Windows?	ipconfig /flushdns
67 What does SaaS stand for?	Software as a Service
68 What does PaaS stand for?	Platform as a Service
69 What does IaaS stand for?	Infrastructure as a Service
70 What is authentication?	Verifying the identity of a user or device.
71 What does ACL stand for?	Access Control List
72 What is the purpose of an ACL?	To allow or deny access to resources based on rules.
73 What is a vulnerability?	A weakness that can be exploited by an attacker.
74 What is a threat?	Anything that could cause harm to a system or organization.
75 What is a risk?	The likelihood that a threat will exploit a vulnerability.
76 What is a security patch?	An update that fixes security vulnerabilities.
77 Can a hash be reversed to reveal the original data?	No
78 What is a digital certificate used for?	To verify identity and support secure communications.
79 What does PKI stand for?	Public Key Infrastructure
80 What is biometrics?	Authentication using physical characteristics such as fingerprints or facial recognition.
81 What is spyware?	Malware that secretly collects information about a user.
82 What is adware?	Software that displays unwanted advertisements.
83 What is a Trojan horse?	Malware disguised as legitimate software.
84 What is a worm?	Malware that spreads itself across networks without user action.
85 What is a botnet?	A group of infected devices controlled by an attacker.
86 What is incident response?	The process of detecting, managing, and recovering from security incidents.
87 What does AAA stand for in security?	Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting
88 What is accounting in AAA?	Tracking and recording user activities.
89 What does SIEM stand for?	Security Information and Event Management
90 What is the purpose of a SIEM system?	To collect, analyze, and alert on security events.
91 What does IDS stand for?	Intrusion Detection System
92 What does IPS stand for?	Intrusion Prevention System
93 What is the difference between IDS and IPS?	IDS detects attacks while IPS detects and blocks attacks.
94 What does EDR stand for?	Endpoint Detection and Response
95 What is the purpose of EDR?	To monitor and respond to threats on endpoint devices.
96 What is a false positive?	A normal event incorrectly identified as a threat.
97 What is a false negative?	A real threat that goes undetected.
98 What is a security policy?	A set of rules that guide security practices.
99 What is the purpose of multifactor authentication?	To improve security by requiring multiple verification methods.
100 What is a passphrase?	A longer and more secure alternative to a password.
101 What is shoulder surfing?	Watching someone enter sensitive information.
102 What is tailgating?	Following an authorized person into a restricted area without permission.
103 What is data loss prevention (DLP)?	Technology that prevents sensitive information from leaving an organization.
104 What does SOC stand for in cybersecurity?	Security Operations Center
105 What is the purpose of a SOC?	To monitor and respond to security incidents.
106 What type of encryption is AES?	Symmetric encryption
107 What type of encryption uses a public and private key pair?	Asymmetric encryption
108 What does RSA stand for?	Rivest, Shamir, and Adleman
109 What is the purpose of a public key?	To encrypt data or verify digital signatures.
110 What is the purpose of a private key?	To decrypt data or create digital signatures.
111 What is a digital signature used for?	To verify authenticity and integrity of data.
112 What does TLS stand for?	Transport Layer Security
113 What protocol replaced SSL for secure communications?	TLS
114 What is a certificate authority (CA)?	An organization that issues digital certificates.
115 What does DMZ stand for in networking?	Demilitarized Zone
116 What is network segmentation?	Dividing a network into smaller sections for security and performance.
117 What is the principle of separation of duties?	Dividing responsibilities so one person cannot control an entire process.
118 What is job rotation?	Regularly changing employee roles to reduce fraud risk.
119 What is mandatory vacation?	Required time off that can help detect unauthorized activities.
120 What is a honeypot?	A decoy system designed to attract attackers.
121 What is penetration testing?	Authorized testing to find security weaknesses.
122 What is vulnerability scanning?	Automated scanning for known security issues.
123 What is the purpose of NAT?	To allow multiple devices to share one public IP address.
124 What does APIPA stand for?	Automatic Private IP Addressing
125 What IP address range does APIPA use?	169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255
126 What does IPv4 stand for?	Internet Protocol version 4
127 How many bits are in an IPv4 address?	32 bits
128 How many bits are in an IPv6 address?	128 bits
129 What address is used to send traffic to all devices on a network?	Broadcast address
130 What address identifies a specific device on a network?	Host address
131 What is the loopback address in IPv4?	127.0.0.1
132 What does ARP stand for?	Address Resolution Protocol
133 What is the purpose of ARP?	To match IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local network.
134 What does ICMP stand for?	Internet Control Message Protocol
135 What command commonly uses ICMP packets?	ping
136 What is packet loss?	Data packets that fail to reach their destination.
137 What is latency?	The time it takes for data to travel across a network.
138 What is bandwidth?	The maximum amount of data that can be transmitted over a connection.
139 How many layers are in the OSI model?	7
140 What is Layer 1 of the OSI model?	Physical layer
141 What is Layer 2 of the OSI model?	Data Link layer
142 What is Layer 3 of the OSI model?	Network layer
143 What is Layer 4 of the OSI model?	Transport layer
144 What is Layer 5 of the OSI model?	Session layer
145 What is Layer 6 of the OSI model?	Presentation layer
146 What is Layer 7 of the OSI model?	Application layer
147 Which OSI layer is responsible for routing?	Network layer
148 Which OSI layer uses IP addresses?	Network layer
149 Which OSI layer uses MAC addresses?	Data Link layer
150 Which OSI layer handles encryption and data formatting?	Presentation layer
151 Which OSI layer provides network services to applications?	Application layer
152 What device primarily operates at the Data Link layer?	Switch
153 What device primarily operates at the Network layer?	Router
154 What device primarily operates at the Physical layer?	Hub
155 What protocol operates at the Application layer for web traffic?	HTTP
156 What is RAID 0?	Disk striping with no fault tolerance.
157 What is RAID 1?	Disk mirroring for fault tolerance.
158 What is RAID 5?	Disk striping with parity requiring at least three drives.
159 What is RAID 10?	A combination of mirroring and striping.
160 How many drives are required for RAID 5?	Three drives minimum.
161 How many drives are required for RAID 1?	Two drives minimum.
162 What component stores the BIOS or UEFI firmware?	Motherboard chip
163 What does UEFI stand for?	Unified Extensible Firmware Interface
164 What is the purpose of a CMOS battery?	To maintain BIOS settings and system time.
165 What does HDD stand for?	Hard Disk Drive
166 What type of storage has no moving parts?	Solid State Drive
167 What is thermal paste used for?	To improve heat transfer between a CPU and heatsink.
168 What component cools the CPU?	Heatsink and fan
169 What expansion slot is commonly used for graphics cards?	PCIe x16
170 What does PCIe stand for?	Peripheral Component Interconnect Express
171 What is RAM used for?	Temporary storage for active programs and data.
172 What type of memory loses data when power is removed?	Volatile memory
173 What is the function of a power supply?	To convert AC power into DC power for computer components.
174 What connector commonly powers graphics cards?	PCIe power connector
175 What does SATA stand for?	Serial ATA
176 What is SATA primarily used for?	Connecting storage devices to the motherboard.
177 What advantage does NVMe have over SATA SSDs?	Faster data transfer speeds.
178 What type of port is commonly used for monitors?	HDMI
179 What does DisplayPort primarily connect?	Monitors and display devices.
180 What does LCD stand for?	Liquid Crystal Display
181 What does LED stand for?	Light Emitting Diode
182 What printer technology uses toner instead of ink?	Laser printer
183 What printer technology sprays liquid ink onto paper?	Inkjet printer
184 What is the purpose of a surge protector?	To protect equipment from voltage spikes.
185 What tool protects systems from power outages?	Uninterruptible Power Supply
186 What cloud model provides complete applications over the internet?	Software as a Service
187 What cloud model provides development platforms and tools?	Platform as a Service
188 What cloud model provides virtual servers and networking resources?	Infrastructure as a Service
189 What is virtualization?	Running multiple virtual machines on one physical computer.
190 What is a hypervisor?	Software that creates and manages virtual machines.
191 What is a Type 1 hypervisor?	A hypervisor that runs directly on hardware.
192 What is a Type 2 hypervisor?	A hypervisor that runs on top of an operating system.
193 What does VM stand for?	Virtual Machine
194 What is scalability in cloud computing?	The ability to increase or decrease resources as needed.
195 What is redundancy?	Having duplicate components to prevent failures.
196 What is failover?	Automatically switching to a backup system after a failure.
197 What is a snapshot in virtualization?	A saved state of a virtual machine.
198 What is containerization?	Packaging applications with their dependencies for portability.
199 What is orchestration?	Managing and automating multiple containers or services.

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